Each question is followed by four options lettered A to D. Find the correct option for each question and shade in pencil on your answer sheet, the answer space which bears the same letter as the option you have chosen. Give only one answer to each question. An example is given below.
A body starts moving with a speed of 40 m s−1 and accelerates uniformly to 90 m s−1 in 4.0 s. Calculate the distance travelled.
A. 100 m B. 180 m C. 200 m D. 260 m
The correct answer is 260 m, which is lettered D, and therefore answer space D would be shaded.
Think carefully before you shade the answer spaces; erase completely any answer(s) you wish to change.
Do all rough work on this question paper.
Now answer the following questions.
1. The instrument used to measure relative humidity is a
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
A hygrometer measures the relative humidity of the air, indicating the moisture content relative to the maximum possible at a given temperature.
A. Incorrect. A hydrometer measures the density of liquids.
C. Incorrect. A manometer measures pressure differences.
D. Incorrect. A barometer measures atmospheric pressure.
2. Which part of the human eye performs the same function as the diaphragm in a lens camera?
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
The iris in the human eye adjusts the pupil size to control the amount of light entering, similar to the diaphragm in a lens camera which adjusts the aperture.
B. Incorrect. The cornea focuses light, like a camera lens.
C. Incorrect. The retina captures light to form images, like a camera sensor.
D. Incorrect. The choroid nourishes the eye and absorbs stray light.
3. An electron moves from an energy level of \(-8.6 \, \text{eV}\) to another level of \(-3.5 \, \text{eV}\). Determine the frequency of the absorbed radiation.
Note: The given conversion \( 1 \, \text{eV} = 1.6 \times 10^{-9} \, \text{J} \) leads to an unrealistic frequency. The standard conversion is \( 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{J} \). Using the correct value:
The frequency matches option D, indicating a likely typo in the problem's conversion factor.
4. A ball of mass 0.8 kg is dropped from a height, \( H \). Just before hitting the ground, its velocity is 5.0 m s\(^{-1}\). Determine \( H \). \([g = 10 \, \text{m s}^{-2}]\)
Explanation:
The correct answer is: D
Using the kinematic equation \( v^2 = u^2 + 2 a s \), where \( v = 5.0 \, \text{m/s} \), \( u = 0 \, \text{m/s} \), \( a = g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \), and \( s = H \):
\[
\begin{aligned}
(5.0)^2 &= (0)^2 + 2 \times 10 \times H \\[1em]
25 &= 20 H \\[1em]
H &= \frac{25}{20} \\[1em]
&= 1.25 \, \text{m}
\end{aligned}
\]
Alternatively, using energy conservation (\( m g H = \frac{1}{2} m v^2 \)) yields the same result, confirming \( H = 1.25 \, \text{m} \).
5. Which of the following statements about latent heat are correct?
I. When ice melts, latent heat is absorbed.
II. When water freezes, latent heat is given off.
III. When water evaporates, latent heat is absorbed.
IV. When water vapour condenses, latent heat is absorbed.
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
I. True. Ice melting absorbs latent heat (latent heat of fusion) to change from solid to liquid.
II. True. Water freezing releases latent heat as it changes from liquid to solid.
III. True. Water evaporating absorbs latent heat (latent heat of vaporization) to change from liquid to gas.
IV. False. When water vapor condenses, latent heat is given off, not absorbed, as it changes from gas to liquid.
Thus, statements I, II, and III are correct.
6. Increasing the frequency of a sound wave produces a sound with
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
The frequency of a sound wave determines its pitch. Increasing the frequency results in a higher pitch, as the sound wave oscillates more times per second.
A. Incorrect. Loudness is related to amplitude, not frequency.
C. Incorrect. The number of overtones depends on the sound source, not just frequency.
D. Incorrect. Wavelength is inversely proportional to frequency (\( \lambda = \frac{v}{f} \)); higher frequency means a shorter wavelength.
7. Which of the following diagrams correctly illustrates the mode of oscillation of air in a tube for the first overtone?
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
The first overtone in a tube open at both ends corresponds to the second harmonic, with a node in the middle and antinodes at both ends. Diagram A shows this pattern, with a central node and antinodes at the ends, correctly illustrating the mode of oscillation.
B. Incorrect. Diagram B shows two nodes, which corresponds to a higher overtone (e.g., third harmonic).
C. Incorrect. Diagram C resembles the fundamental mode with a single antinode, not the first overtone.
D. Incorrect. Diagram D shows three lobes with two nodes, suggesting a higher mode (e.g., third harmonic for a closed-end tube).
8. In a mass spectrometer, an ion of charge, \( q \), and mass, \( m \), moving in a path of radius, \( r \), in a field of flux density, \( B \), has a speed of
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
In a mass spectrometer, the ion moves in a circular path due to the magnetic force. The magnetic force \( q v B \) provides the centripetal force \( \frac{m v^2}{r} \). Setting them equal:
\[
\begin{aligned}
q v B &= \frac{m v^2}{r} \\[1em]
q B &= \frac{m v}{r} \quad (\text{divide by } v) \\[1em]
v &= \frac{q B r}{m}
\end{aligned}
\]
This matches option B, \( \frac{B q r}{m} \).
9. A sound of frequency 512 Hz reaches a listener 100 m away. If the sound travels in air at s.t.p., what is its wavelength? [speed of sound in air = 331 \( \text{m} \, \text{s}^{-1} \)]
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
The wavelength \( \lambda \) is calculated using \( v = f \lambda \), where \( v = 331 \, \text{m} \, \text{s}^{-1} \) (speed) and \( f = 512 \, \text{s}^{-1} \) (frequency in Hz). Solving for \( \lambda \):
Units check: \( \frac{\text{m} \, \text{s}^{-1}}{\text{s}^{-1}} = \text{m} \), which is correct for wavelength. Thus, the wavelength is 0.646 m.
10. In the Rutherford scattering experiment, a beam of alpha particles was fired at a thin gold film and few of the particles were deflected considerably. This shows that the nucleus of an atom
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
In the Rutherford scattering experiment, the large deflections of alpha particles indicated that the atom’s positive charge is concentrated in a tiny nucleus.
Most particles passed through, showing atoms are mostly empty space, while the few significant deflections confirmed the nucleus is positively charged and occupies a small volume, repelling the positively charged alpha particles.
11. A charge of 10 C is transferred across a potential difference of 220 V. Determine the work done.
Explanation:
The correct answer is: C
The work done \( W \) is calculated using the formula \( W = Q \cdot V \), where \( Q = 10 \, \text{C} \) (charge) and \( V = 220 \, \text{V} \) (potential difference):
\[
\begin{aligned}
W &= Q \cdot V \\[1em]
&= 10 \cdot 220 \\[1em]
&= 2200 \, \text{J}
\end{aligned}
\]
Thus, the work done is 2200 J.
12. A solenoid is constructed by winding an insulated copper wire on a long test tube. A constant direct current is passed through the solenoid. Which of the following actions will not increase the strength of the magnetic field of the solenoid? Inserting a
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
The magnetic field strength of a solenoid is given by \( B = \mu n I \), where \( \mu \) is the permeability of the core.
Option A (brass rod) is correct because brass is non-magnetic (\( \mu \approx \mu_0 \)), so it does not increase the field strength compared to an air core.
The other options are incorrect because they involve ferromagnetic materials with high permeability (\( \mu \gg \mu_0 \)): B (soft iron), C (steel), and D (nickel) all enhance the magnetic field significantly due to their ability to be magnetized.
13. The following statements are advantages of a solid dielectric material between the plates of a capacitor except that
Explanation:
The correct answer is: C
A solid dielectric enhances a capacitor by increasing its capacitance and maximum potential difference, and by maintaining plate separation.
Option C is correct as the exception because a dielectric should be an insulator; increasing electrical conduction would allow current to flow between plates, reducing the capacitor’s charge storage ability.
Options A, B, and D are incorrect as exceptions because they are true advantages: A increases the breakdown voltage, B boosts capacitance via the dielectric constant, and D ensures fixed plate separation.
14. Which of the following statements about a ferromagnetic material is correct? It
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
Option B is correct because ferromagnetic materials have a high magnetic susceptibility (\( \chi \gg 1 \)), allowing them to be strongly magnetized in an external magnetic field.
Options A, C, and D are incorrect: A is wrong because ferromagnets have high relative permeability, not low; C is wrong because they attract, not repel, other magnetic materials; and D is wrong because they do not attract non-magnetic materials.
15. A ball, P, is released from the roof of a building at the same time as another ball, Q, is thrown vertically upward from the base of the building. Which of the following statements is correct?
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
Option A is correct because both balls experience the same gravitational acceleration (\( g \approx 9.8 \, \text{m s}^{-2} \)) downward, regardless of their initial velocities or directions of motion.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect: B is wrong because the accelerations are in the same direction (downward), not opposite; C and D are wrong because the accelerations are equal, not different.
16. A planet has mass, \( M \), and radius, \( R \), if the universal gravitational constant is \( G \), what is the expression for the escape velocity of an object on the planet?
Explanation:
The correct answer is: C
The escape velocity is the minimum speed required for an object to escape a planet’s gravitational pull, reaching infinity with zero kinetic energy. Using conservation of energy, the kinetic energy at the surface, \( \frac{1}{2} m v^2 \), equals the gravitational potential energy, \( \frac{G M m}{R} \). Setting them equal:
\[
\begin{aligned}
\frac{1}{2} m v^2 &= \frac{G M m}{R} \\[1em]
\frac{1}{2} v^2 &= \frac{G M}{R} \quad (\text{divide by } m) \\[1em]
v^2 &= \frac{2 G M}{R} \\[1em]
v &= \left( \frac{2 G M}{R} \right)^{1/2}
\end{aligned}
\]
This matches option C, \( \left( \frac{2 G M}{R} \right)^{1/2} \).
17. The specific latent heat of vaporization of lead is \( 8.7 \times 10^5 \, \mathrm{J \, kg^{-1}} \). This means that \( 8.7 \times 10^5 \, \mathrm{J} \) of thermal energy is required to change
Explanation:
The correct answer is: D
The specific latent heat of vaporization is the amount of thermal energy required to change 1 kg of a substance from liquid (molten) to vapor phase at constant temperature and pressure.
Here, the value \( 8.7 \times 10^5 \, \mathrm{J \, kg^{-1}} \) means:
\[
\text{Energy required} = 8.7 \times 10^5 \, \mathrm{J}
\]
to change
\[
1\, \mathrm{kg}
\]
of molten lead to vapour at constant temperature and pressure.
It does not apply to the solid phase directly, nor does it depend on temperature change during the phase transition.
Therefore, the correct answer is D.
18. A 100 kg device is pulled up a plane inclined at 30° to the horizontal with a force of 1000 N.
If the coefficient of friction between the device and the surface is 0.25, determine the total force opposing the motion.
[g = 10 m/s2]
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
The forces opposing the motion are the component of the weight down the incline and the frictional force.
Given:
Mass, \( m = 100\, \mathrm{kg} \)
Incline angle, \( \theta = 30^\circ \)
Coefficient of friction, \( \mu = 0.25 \)
Gravity, \( g = 10\, \mathrm{m/s}^2 \)
19. Two objects A and B, accelerate from rest at uniform rates. B accelerates twice as much as A. Compared to A, B travels
Explanation:
The correct answer is: D
Both objects start from rest, with object A having acceleration \( a \) and object B having acceleration \( 2a \). Assuming they accelerate for the same time \( t \), the distance traveled is given by:
Thus, B travels twice as far as A, matching option D.
20.
The diagram above illustrates a hot metal suspended at the centre of a closed uniform box. Thermometers E, F, G, and H are placed in contact with four sides of the box. Which of the thermometers would register the highest temperature?
Explanation:
The correct answer is: D
The hot metal at the center radiates heat uniformly. Convection causes hot air to rise to the top of the box, making the top face (E) the hottest. The bottom face (G) is the coolest due to sinking cool air, while the side faces (F and H) are intermediate. Thus, thermometer E registers the highest temperature.
21. A liquid is left in an open dish. After several days, there is less liquid in the dish. Which of the following statements explains this observation? The
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
Topic: Evaporation and Molecular Energy
When a liquid is left in an open dish, evaporation occurs. Evaporation happens because the most energetic molecules at the liquid's surface gain enough energy to overcome intermolecular forces and escape into the air.
This results in a gradual loss of liquid over time.
Therefore, the correct explanation is that most energetic molecules leave the surface and escape into the air, which corresponds to option A.
22. The colors of the visible light region of the electromagnetic spectrum that have the shortest and longest wavelengths respectively are
Explanation:
The correct answer is: C
Topic: Visible Light Spectrum and Wavelengths
In the visible light spectrum, violet has the shortest wavelength, while red has the longest wavelength.
Therefore, the colors with the shortest and longest wavelengths respectively are violet and red, which matches option C.
23. Which of the following equations is not a correct mirror formula?
[The symbols have their usual meanings]
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
Topic: Mirror Formula and Optics
The standard mirror and lens formulas include:
\[
\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{u} + \frac{1}{v}
\]
\[
m = \frac{v}{u}
\quad \text{and} \quad
f = \frac{1}{D} \quad \
\]
However, the formula
\[
N = \frac{360}{\theta} = -1
\]
is not related to mirror equations and does not make physical or mathematical sense in this context.
Hence, option A is not a valid mirror formula.
24. An atom in an excited state is one whose
Explanation:
The correct answer is: C
Topic: Atomic Energy Levels
An excited state occurs when an atom absorbs energy, causing one or more electrons to move from a lower energy level (ground state) to a higher one.
This state is unstable, and the atom may release energy to return to its ground state.
Thus, the correct option is C: electrons have moved to a higher energy level.
25. The conclusive test for magnetism in a steel bar suspended horizontally at its midpoint is when the bar
Explanation:
The correct answer is: D
Topic: Magnetism – Testing for Magnetic Properties
While attraction is a necessary condition, it is not sufficient because magnetic materials (like soft iron) can be attracted to magnets without being magnets themselves.
The conclusive test for magnetism is directional behavior: a freely suspended magnet will always align itself along the magnetic North-South direction of the Earth.
Therefore, the steel bar settling in the magnetic N-S direction confirms it has become magnetized.
26. Which of the following devices is used to compare the relative magnitudes of charges on two given bodies?
Explanation:
The correct answer is: C
Topic: Electrostatics – Charge Detection
The gold leaf electroscope is an instrument used to detect the presence and relative magnitude of electric charge on a body.
When a charged object is brought near the metal cap of the electroscope, it induces a charge that causes the gold leaves to diverge.
The degree of divergence gives a visual indication of the magnitude of the charge — the greater the divergence, the larger the charge.
Therefore, the gold leaf electroscope is the correct device for comparing the relative magnitudes of charges.
27. A direct current cannot pass through a parallel plate capacitor because
Explanation:
The correct answer is: C
Topic: Capacitors and Electric Circuits
A parallel plate capacitor has two conductive plates separated by a dielectric (insulating) material.
Direct current (DC) requires a continuous conducting path, but the dielectric is non-conducting, so no actual current can pass through the capacitor.
Instead, a displacement current is established in AC circuits, but for DC, after the plates are charged, current ceases to flow.
Therefore, the correct explanation is that the dielectric between the plates is non-conducting.
28. The process of producing electric current by a changing magnetic field is referred to as
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
Topic: Electromagnetic Induction
Electromagnetic induction is the process of generating an electric current in a conductor by changing the magnetic field around it.
This phenomenon was discovered by Michael Faraday and forms the basis for the operation of generators and transformers.
It occurs when there is relative motion between a conductor and a magnetic field, or when the magnetic field itself changes with time.
Hence, the correct option is B: electromagnetic induction.
29. The sagging of overhead electrical wires is caused by
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
Topic: Thermal Expansion of Solids
Overhead electrical wires are made of metals, which expand when heated by the sun during the day and contract when cooled at night.
This phenomenon is known as linear expansion.
To prevent breakage during cold conditions, wires are intentionally hung with some slack.
As temperature increases, the wires expand and appear to sag more due to increased length.
Thus, the sagging of the wires is due to linear expansion.
30. A cell of emf 2 V has an internal resistance of 0.5 Ω. A current of 0.4 A passes through an
external resistor, P. Determine the resistance of P.
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
Topic: Electrical Circuits – EMF and Internal Resistance
Using Ohm’s law and the formula for EMF:
\[
\text{EMF} = I(R + r)
\]
Where:
\( \text{EMF} = 2 \ \text{V} \)
\( I = 0.4 \ \text{A} \)
\( r = 0.5 \ \Omega \) (internal resistance)
\( R = \text{resistance of P} \)
Substitute into the equation:
\[
2 = 0.4(R + 0.5)
\]
Divide both sides by 0.4:
\[
\frac{2}{0.4} = R + 0.5
\]
\[
5 = R + 0.5
\]
\[
R = 5 - 0.5 = 4.0 \ \Omega
\]
Therefore, the resistance of P is 4.0 Ω.
31. The property of a body that determines the direction of heat flow when the body is in contact with another body is the
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
Topic: Heat and Temperature
Heat flows from a body at a higher temperature to one at a lower temperature when they are in thermal contact. The property that dictates this flow is the temperature, not heat capacity, mass, or power.
Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of particles in a substance, and it directly governs the direction of thermal energy transfer.
32. In an RLC series circuit at resonance, the voltages across the resistor and the inductor are 30 V and 40 V respectively. Determine the voltage across the capacitor.
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
Topic: RLC Series Circuits and Resonance
At resonance in an RLC series circuit, the inductive reactance \( X_L \) is equal to the capacitive reactance \( X_C \).
Thus, the voltage across the inductor \( V_L \) and the voltage across the capacitor \( V_C \) are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction:
33. The purpose of commutators in a direct current motor is to
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
Topic: Electric Motors and Commutators
In a direct current (DC) motor, the commutator serves the crucial function of reversing the direction of the current in the armature coil every half rotation.
This reversal ensures that the torque acting on the coil always acts in the same rotational direction, enabling continuous rotation.
Without the commutator, the coil would experience a torque reversal every half turn, causing it to oscillate rather than rotate continuously.
34. A lead bullet of mass \( m_1 = 0.05\, \text{kg} \) is fired with speed \( v_1 = 200\, \text{m s}^{-1} \) into a lead block of mass \( m_2 = 0.95\, \text{kg} \) initially at rest. Given the block moves after impact, determine its kinetic energy.
Explanation:
The correct answer is: D
Topic: Conservation of Momentum and Kinetic Energy
Therefore, the kinetic energy is approximately 50 J.
35. What is the name given to the force of attraction between the nucleons in the nucleus of an atom?
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
Topic: Nuclear Physics
The force that holds protons and neutrons (nucleons) together in the nucleus of an atom is known as the nuclear force. This force is very strong but acts over a very short range, overcoming the electrostatic repulsion between positively charged protons.
36. In a controlled thermal fission reactor, the use of control rods will not affect the
Explanation:
The correct answer is: C
Topic: Nuclear Reactor Control
Control rods absorb neutrons to regulate the rate of the fission reaction.
This affects how much energy is generated but not the radiation emitted.
Radiation mostly comes from fission fragments and radioactive decay, which control rods do not influence.
37. The most appropriate value of fuse for a kettle rated
\( 220\,\text{V},\ 1.06\,\text{kW} \) is
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
Topic: Electrical Power and Safety
Step 1: Convert the power rating from kilowatts to watts.
\[
P = 1.06\,\text{kW} = 1060\,\text{W}
\]
Step 2: Use the formula \( I = \frac{P}{V} \) to calculate the current.
\[
I = \frac{1060}{220} \approx 4.82\,\text{A}
\]
Step 3: Choose a fuse slightly above the calculated current.
So, the appropriate fuse rating is 5 A.
38. The type of mirror used by dentists to inspect the teeth of patients is a
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
Topic: Reflection by Curved Mirrors
Dentists use concave mirrors because they form magnified and upright images.
This helps them clearly see the details of the teeth being examined.
Concave mirrors also focus light to illuminate the area effectively.
The diagram above illustrates a mode of vibration of a wire of length 125 cm. The speed of the waves along the wire is 120 m s-1. Use the diagram to answer questions 39 and 40
39. The diagram illustrates a mode of vibration of a wire of length 125 cm. The speed of the waves along the wire is 120 m s-1. Determine the wavelength of the waves.
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
The diagram shows a standing wave with 5 loops, indicating the fifth harmonic (\( n = 5 \)). For a wire fixed at both ends, \( \lambda = \frac{2L}{n} \), where \( L = 1.25 \, \text{m} \):
40. The diagram illustrates a mode of vibration of a wire of length 125 cm. The speed of the waves along the wire is 120 m s-1. Determine the frequency of the waves.
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
Using the wavelength \( \lambda = 0.50 \, \text{m} \) from Question 39 and the wave speed \( v = 120 \, \text{m/s} \), the frequency is:
41. Which of the following statements about the properties of the electric field produced by charged parallel plates is not correct?
Explanation:
The correct answer is: A
Topic: Electric Fields
The electric field between charged parallel plates is approximately uniform, but not everywhere.
Near the edges of the plates, fringing causes the field to become non-uniform.
Therefore, stating that the field is uniform everywhere is incorrect.
42. A car, \( P \), with a velocity of \( 30\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}} \) is travelling in the same direction as a car, \( Q \), with a velocity of \( 20\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}} \). What is the velocity of \( P \) relative to \( Q \)?
The correct answer is: C
Topic: Relative Velocity
The velocity of \( P \) relative to \( Q \), denoted \( v_{PQ} \), is given by:
This means car \( P \) is moving at \( 10\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}} \) faster than car \( Q \) in the same direction.
43. The range of wavelengths of infrared waves in the electromagnetic spectrum is from \(10^{-3}\ \mathrm{m}\) to \(10^{-6}\ \mathrm{m}\). The wavelength of the radiation is:
The correct answer is: C
Topic: Electromagnetic Spectrum – Infrared Waves
The wavelength of infrared radiation lies within the range:
This means the wavelength is longer than \(10^{-6}\ \mathrm{m}\) and shorter than \(10^{-3}\ \mathrm{m}\).
Therefore, the correct statement is that the wavelength is longer than \(10^{-6}\ \mathrm{m}\).
44. When an electron jumps directly from an orbit of \( n = 4 \) to \( n = 2 \),
The correct answer is: D
Explanation:
Topic: Atomic Energy Levels and Photon Emission
When an electron jumps from a higher energy level \( n=4 \) to a lower energy level \( n=2 \),
a photon is emitted because the electron loses energy.
This photon corresponds to the energy difference between the two orbits.
45. When a light-weight body and a massive body are acted upon by the same force for the same period of time, the
The correct answer is: D
Explanation:
Topic: Newton’s Second Law and Impulse-Momentum Theorem
Impulse is given by \( F \times t \), which is also equal to the change in momentum \( \Delta p \).
Since both bodies experience the same force for the same time, they receive the same impulse.
Therefore, both acquire the same momentum regardless of their masses.
46. Which of the following devices is associated with alternating currents only?
The correct answer is: B
Topic: AC Circuits and Electromagnetic Devices
Explanation:
A step-up transformer operates based on electromagnetic induction, which requires a changing magnetic field.
Such a changing field is produced only by alternating current (AC), not direct current (DC).
Therefore, step-up transformers are exclusively used with AC.
47. A body starts with an initial velocity of \( 20 \, \text{m s}^{-1} \) and moves with a uniform acceleration, \( a \), for 15 seconds. Which of the following equations represents the distance, \( S \), travelled?
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
Topic: Equations of Motion
The equation for distance travelled under uniform acceleration is:
\[
S = ut + \frac{1}{2} a t^2
\]
Given initial velocity \( u = 20 \, \text{m/s} \) and time \( t = 15 \, \text{s} \), substitute:
\[
S = 20 \times 15 + \frac{1}{2} a \times 15^2
\]
Calculate the terms:
\[
S = 300 + \frac{1}{2} a \times 225
\]
Simplify the expression:
\[
S = 300 + \frac{225a}{2}
\]
This matches option B.
48. The ratio of the maximum range to the maximum height of a projectile is 4. Determine the angle of projection.
Explanation:
The correct answer is: B
Topic: Projectile Motion
For a projectile, the maximum range \( R \) and maximum height \( H \) are given by:
\[
R = \frac{u^2 \sin(2\theta)}{g}, \quad H = \frac{u^2 \sin^2\theta}{2g}
\]
49. The following statements are observations made about a towing vehicle and a bus that is being towed.
I. The force exerted on the bus by the towing vehicle is of the same magnitude as the force that the bus exerts on the road.
II. The force exerted on the bus by the towing vehicle is of the same magnitude as the force exerted on the towing vehicle by the bus.
III. The towing vehicle exerts a force on the bus greater than the force exerted by the bus on the towing vehicle.
IV. The towing vehicle exerts a force on the bus that is the same as the force the road exerts on the towing vehicle.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
The correct answer is: D
Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion
Newton’s third law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
So, the force exerted on the bus by the towing vehicle is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the force exerted by the bus on the towing vehicle (statement II is correct).
However, only statement II is fully correct in describing observable forces, since the others misinterpret interactions between the road and the vehicles.
50.
The diagram illustrates a velocity-time graph. Determine the distance between X and Y.
Explanation:
The correct answer is: C
The distance between X and Y is the area under the velocity-time graph from \( t = 4 \, \text{s} \) to \( t = 8 \, \text{s} \). The velocity is constant at 40 m/s, so the area is a rectangle: